# Is The Ratio of Normal Variables Normal?

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In *Trustworthy Online Controller Experiments* I came across this quote, referring to a ratio metric $M = \frac{X}{Y}$, which states that:

Because $X$ and $Y$ are jointly bivariate normal in the limit, $M$, as the ratio of the two averages, is also normally distributed.

That’s only partially true. According to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ratio_distribution, the ratio of two uncorrelated noncentral normal variables $X = N(\mu_X, \sigma_X^2)$ and $Y = N(\mu_Y, \sigma_Y^2)$ has mean $\mu_X / \mu_Y$ and variance approximately $\frac{\mu_X^2}{\mu_Y^2}\left( \frac{\sigma_X^2}{\mu_X^2} + \frac{\sigma_Y^2}{\mu_Y^2} \right)$. The article implies that this is true when $Y$ is unlikely to assume negative values, say $\mu_Y > 3 \sigma_Y$.

As always, the best way to believe something is to see it yourself. Let’s generate some uncorrelated normal variables far from 0 and their ratio:

ux = 100 sdx = 2 uy = 50 sdy = 0.5 X <- rnorm(1000, mean = ux, sd = sdx) Y <- rnorm(1000, mean = uy, sd = sdy) Z <- X / Y

Their ratio looks normal enough:

hist(Z)

Which is confirmed by a q-q plot:

qqnorm(Z)

What about the mean and variance?

mean(Z) [1] 1.998794 ux / uy [1] 2 var(Z) [1] 0.001783404 ux^2 / uy^2 * (sdx^2 / ux^2 + sdy^2 / uy^2) [1] 0.002

Both the mean and variance are *very* close to their theoretical values.

But what happens now when the denominator $Y$ has a mean close to 0?

ux = 100 sdx = 2 uy = 10 sdy = 2 X <- rnorm(1000, mean = ux, sd = sdx) Y <- rnorm(1000, mean = uy, sd = sdy) Z <- X / Y

Hard to call the resulting ratio normally distributed:

hist(Z)

Which is also clear with a q-q plot:

qqnorm(Z)

In other words, it is generally true that ratio metrics where the denominator is far from 0 will also be close enough to a normal distribution for practical purposes. But when the denominator’s mean is, say, closer than 5 sigmas from 0 that assumption breaks down.

The post Is The Ratio of Normal Variables Normal? appeared first on David's blog.

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